MyBB Community Forums

At last, there is proof that 1 + 1 = 1!!! Time to sue my first grade teacher for planting lies, fallacies, and conspiracy theories into my head.

Let a = 1 and b = 1.

Therefore a = b, by substitution.

If two numbers are equal, then their squares are equal, too:

a^2 = b^2.

Now subtract b^2 from both sides (if an equation is true, then if
you subtract the same thing from both sides, the result is also
a true equation) so

a^2 - b^2 = 0.

Now the lefthand side of the equation is a form known as "the
difference of two squares" and can be factored into (a-b)*(a+b).
If you don't believe me, then try multiplying it out carefully,
and you will see that it's correct. So:

(a-b)*(a+b) = 0.

Now if you have an equation, you can divide both sides by the same
thing, right? Let's divide by (a-b), so we get:

(a-b)*(a+b) / (a-b) = (a-b)/(a-b).

On the lefthand side, the (a-b)/(a-b) simplifies to 1, right?
and the righthand side simplifies to 0, right? So we get:

1*(a+b) = 0,

and since 1* anything = that same anything, then we have:

(a+b) = 0.

But a = 1 and b = 1, so:

1 + 1 = 0, or 2 = 0.

Now let's divide both sides by 2, and we get:

1 = 0.

Then we add 1 to both sides, and we get what your programming
teacher said, namely:

1 + 1 = 1.

Source: http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/57110.html

As stated in the article, you can't divide by 0. Have fun with your court case!

(2011-07-16, 11:39 PM)Scoutie44 Wrote: [ -> ]As stated in the article, you can't divide by 0. Have fun with your court case!

troll + win = scoutie. <- I was bored and felt like acting 4.

Half way through I decided that there was to much maths and not enough reason for me to actually read it.

Some one want to tell me if this actually makes sense/works? xD

(2011-07-17, 02:47 AM)wethegreenpeople Wrote: [ -> ]Half way through I decided that there was to much maths and not enough reason for me to actually read it.

Some one want to tell me if this actually makes sense/works? xD

Read up a couple comments? Go to sleep bra.

(a-b)*(a+b) = 0.

Now if you have an equation, you can divide both sides by the same
thing, right? Let's divide by (a-b), so we get:

(a-b)*(a+b) / (a-b) = (a-b)/(a-b).
----------

If we divide both sides by the same thing, then right part became:

0/(a-b)

why 0 = (a-b)/(a-b)??? that's the wrong part

1 + 1 = 2 because 1 + 1 is one more than 1, and the number that is one more than 1 is 2.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Malcolm, if you have the apple and another apple, then you have apple, but not the orange or banana!
so... 1+1=1 (apple+apple=apple)

(2011-07-17, 03:12 AM)Maj Wrote: [ -> ]Malcolm, if you have the apple and another apple, then you have apple, but not the orange or banana!
so... 1+1=1 (apple+apple=apple)

I sure hope your not serious. Also, everyone believes in bears..they are not mythical creatures.